My questions in response to StandFirm's blog post.
I thought the debate was to be about the justification of adding the word Jehovah 237 times to the Greek text of the Bible when it does not appear anywhere in any of the exact Greek manuscripts. You don't seem to be giving any justification, but rather are simply pointing to other Bibles that have the name Jehovah in them.
Can you help me understand what you're saying, please? Particularly, I need you to help me understand what you're stating when you refer to Hebrew translations. I thought we were talking about the Greek scriptures, ie. the parts not written in Hebrew, but rather in Greek. I assumed our debate was going to be on the 237 times that Jehovah is added to the Bible books Matthew through Revelation.
You do understand, I'm sure, that Jehovah isn't actually God's name, but rather one of the names God revealed himself to the Jews is by the Hebrew letters 'YHWH' of which we have no definitive English transliteration. Is your assertion that the writers of the Greek scriptures added the 4 Hebrew letters above into their letters and testimonies? I just want to be clear on whether you realise this before I write my comments on my blog.
No comments:
Post a Comment